
Contents
Preface
Abbreviations
Part 1: Practice Papers
Paper 1 Questions
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 2 Questions
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 3 Questions
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 4 Questions
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 5 Questions
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Part 2: Answers to Practice Papers
Paper 1 Answers
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 2 Answers
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 3 Answers
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Paper 4 Answers
Single Best Answer Questions
Paper 5 Answers
Single Best Answer Questions
Extended Matching Questions
Topic index

This edition first published 2011 © 2011 by John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.
Previous edition © 2007 Jonathan Bath, Rebecca Morgan & Mehool Patel. Published by
Blackwell Publishing.
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Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data
Bath, Jonathan.
EMQs and SBAs for medical finals / Jonathan Bath, Rebecca Morgan, Patel, Mehool.
p. ; cm.
Rev. ed. of: EMQs and MCQs for medical finals / Jonathan Bath, Rebecca Morgan, Mehool Patel. 2007.
Includes bibliographical references and index.
ISBN978-0-470-65444-6 (pbk. : alk. paper)
1. Medicine–Examinations, questions, etc. I. Morgan, Rebecca. II. Patel, Mehool. III. Bath, Jonathan. EMQs and MCQs for medical finals. IV. Title.
[DNLM: 1. Medicine–Great Britain–Examination Questions. W 18.2]
R834.5.B37 2011
610.76–dc22
2011007201
A catalogue record for this book is available from the British Library.
1 2011
Preface
The idea for the first edition of EMQs and MCQs for Medical Finals was to provide a solid question book that provided detailed explanations with the answers to enable the reader to learn not only why the answer was correct, but also why the other options were incorrect. At the time of publication in 2007, the number of question and answer books with this detailed answer format was limited, allowing EMQs and MCQs for Medical Finals to establish a niche, which has been quickly recognized by subsequent question and answer books to be the preferred format for examination preparation resources.
The second edition reflects feedback from many students, doctors and other readers and has led to many improvements. The title of the book has evolved to better describe the question format used in current examinations, question stems have been shortened to allow quick and precise reading of questions, and factual information has been updated where needed to reflect changes in clinical practice. Finally, the five practice examination papers have been indexed to allow for rapid review of specific areas, for example Cardiology or Vascular Surgery, as required.
We hope that these improvements will ensure that EMQs and SBAs for Medical Finals will continue to provide an excellent resource for identifying key examination topics and, more importantly, help to focus preparation on less familiar areas of knowledge for Finals.
Jonathan Bath
Pittsburgh
Rebecca Morgan
London
Abbreviations
| AAA | abdominal aortic aneurysm |
| ABC | airway–breathing–circulation |
| ABG | arterial blood gas |
| ACE | angiotensin-converting enzyme |
| ACTH | adrenocorticotropic hormone |
| ADH | antidiuretic hormone |
| A&E | Accident and Emergency |
| AFP | alpha-fetoprotein |
| ALL | acute lymphocytic leukaemia |
| ALT | alanine transaminase |
| AML | acute myeloid leukaemia |
| AMT | abbreviated mental test |
| ANCA | antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody |
| A/P | antero-posterior |
| APTT | activated partial thromboplastin time |
| ARMD | age-related macular degeneration |
| AST | aspartate transaminase |
| AV | atrioventricular |
| BCG | Bacille Calmette Guerin |
| BMI | body mass index |
| BPH | benign prostatic hyperplasia |
| bpm | beats per minute |
| CA 15-3 | cancer antigen 15-3 |
| CEA | carcino-embryonic antigen |
| CK | creatine kinase |
| CLL | chronic lymphocytic leukaemia |
| CML | chronic myeloid leukaemia |
| CMV | cytomegalovirus |
| CoA | coenzyme A |
| COPD | chronic obstructive pulmonary disease |
| CPP | cerebral perfusion pressure |
| CREST | calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly and telangiectasia) |
| CSF | cerebrospinal fluid |
| CT | computed tomography |
| CT-PA | computed tomography with pulmonary angiography |
| DC | direct current |
| DCIS | ductal carcinoma in situ |
| ds-DNA | double-stranded DNA |
| ECG | electrocardiogram/electrocardiography |
| ECT | electroconvulsive therapy |
| EMDR | eye movement desensitization and reprocessing |
| ENT | ear, nose and throat |
| ERCP | endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram |
| ESR | erythrocyte sedimentation rate |
| ETT | exercise tolerance test |
| FAST | focused assessment with sonography for trauma |
| FENa | fractional excretion of sodium |
| GBM | glomerular basement membrane |
| GCS | Glasgow coma scale |
| γ-GGT | gamma glutamyl transpeptidase |
| GORD | gastro-oesophageal reflux disease |
| GP | general practitioner |
| G6PD | glucose-6-phosphatase |
| GTN | glyceryl trinitrate |
| hCG | human chorionic gonadotropin |
| 5-HIAA | 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid |
| HIDA | hepatobiliary iminodiacetic acid |
| HIV | human immunodeficiency virus |
| HMG CoA | 3-hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A |
| HMMA | 4-hydroxy methyl mandelate |
| HPV | human papilloma virus |
| HSV | herpes simplex virus |
| HTLV | human T-cell lymphotropic virus |
| ICP | intracerebral pressure |
| ICU | Intensive Care Unit |
| IgA | immunoglobulin A |
| IgE | immunoglobulin E |
| IgG | immunoglobulin G |
| IL | interleukin |
| IM | intramuscular |
| INR | international normalized ratio |
| IUCD | intrauterine contraceptive device |
| IV | intravenous |
| IVU | intravenous urogram |
| JVP | jugular venous pressure |
| LDH | lactate dehydrogenase |
| LFT | liver function test |
| LKM1 | liver/kidney microsomal type I antibodies |
| LSD | lysergic acid diethylamide |
| MAOI | monoamine oxidase inhibitor |
| MAP | mean arterial pressure |
| MCV | mean corpuscular volume |
| MI | myocardial infarction |
| MMR | measles, mumps and rubella |
| MRI | magnetic resonance imaging |
| NMDA | N-methyl-D-aspartic acid |
| NSAID | non-steroid anti-inflammatory drug |
| NSE | neurone specific enolase |
| OGD | oesophagogastroduodenoscopy |
| PaCO2 | partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood |
| PaO2 | partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood |
| PAS | Periodic acid Schiff |
| pCO2 | partial pressure of carbon dioxide in blood |
| PCP | phencyclidine |
| PDA | patent ductus arteriosus |
| PEFR | peak expiratory flow rate |
| PEG | percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy |
| PFT | pulmonary function test |
| pO2 | partial pressure of oxygen in blood |
| PSA | prostate-specific antibody |
| PSC | primary sclerosing cholangitis |
| PTCA | percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty |
| PUVA | psoralen plus ultraviolet A |
| SA | sinoatrial |
| SIADH | syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion |
| SLE | systemic lupus erythematosus |
| SSRI | selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor |
| TCA | tricyclic antidepressant |
| TFT | thyroid function test |
| THC | δ-1-tetrahydrocannabinol |
| TIBC | total iron binding capacity |
| TNF-α | tumour necrosis factor α |
| TPN | total parenteral nutrition |
| TRH | thyroid-releasing hormone |
| TSH | thyroid-stimulating hormone |
| TURP | transurethral resection of the prostate |
| vWF | von Willebrand factor |
| V/Q | ventilation–perfusion |
| VZV | varicella zoster virus |
a. Upper outer quadrant
b. Upper inner quadrant
c. Lower outer quadrant
d. Lower inner quadrant
e. Retro-areolar
a. Start digoxin for rate control
b. Warfarinization to reduce the risk of thromboembolism formation
c. Start a beta-blocker for associated hypertension
d. Organize an echocardiogram
e. Refer back to his general practitioner (GP) as his case can easily be managed in the community
a. Nulliparity
b. Late pregnancy (>30 years)
c. Early menarche
d. Late menopause
e. High dietary dairy intake
a. He needs to be admitted for further bloods tests
b. He requires an exercise tolerance test (ETT) before he is discharged
c. An echocardiogram will be useful in his further management
d. He can be safely discharged without further follow-up
e. He should be started on aspirin
a. Dermatitis
b. Lichen planus
c. Chemical burn
d. Porphyria cutanea tarda
e. Psoriasis
a. Clinical examination, ultrasound, biopsy
b. Clinical examination and mammogram
c. Ultrasound, mammogram and biopsy
d. Clinical examination, mammogram and biopsy
e. Clinical examination, chest X-ray and biopsy
a. Normal subcutaneous insulin with hourly blood glucose monitoring
b. Sliding scale of insulin with hourly blood glucose monitoring
c. Constant insulin infusion with hourly blood glucose monitoring
d. Change of normal insulin regimen to once-daily longacting insulin
e. Increase of normal insulin regimen to double requirements
a. Incision and drainage of a 4-cm subcutaneous abscess
b. Digital rectal examination
c. Regular suction of nasopharyngeal secretions
d. Daily bloods taken via a central venous catheter
e. Regular turning to avoid pressure sores
a. Insert a temporary pacing wire
b. Give regular atropine
c. Start amiodarone 200 mg tds
d. Stop digoxin
e. Take bloods, including drug levels
a. Thyroid function tests
b. ECG
c. Computed tomography (CT) scan of the head
d. Echocardiography
e. Short synacthen test
a. Atypical eczema
b. Psoriasis
c. Dermatitis herpetiformis
d. Scabies
e. Polycythaemia rubra vera
a. Ventricular septal defect
b. Recurrent infarction
c. Aortic regurgitation
d. Heart failure
e. Dressler’s syndrome
a. Oral flucloxacillin
b. Incision and drainage of abscess
c. Needle aspiration
d. Analgesia and cold compress
e. Admit for intravenous (IV) antibiotics
a. Liver failure
b. Gliclazide
c. Insulinoma
d. Addison’s disease
e. Cushing’s disease
a. Viral
b. Alcohol
c. Outflow obstruction
d. Congenital
e. Autoimmune
a. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d. Polycythaemia rubra vera
e. Myelodysplastic syndrome
a. Four limb blood pressure measurements
b. Liver function tests (LFTs)
c. Lateral chest X-ray
d. CT scan of chest
e. ECG
a. Varicella zoster virus (VZV)
b. Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
c. Molluscum contagiosum
d. Eczema
e. Pityriasis versicolor
a. Contact your senior colleagues for assistance
b. Perform an arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
c. Attach a cardiac monitor
d. Request a chest X-ray
e. Complete a primary survey
a. Fibroadenoma
b. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)
c. Invasive ductal carcinoma
d. Breast cyst
e. Breast abscess
a. t(8;14)
b. t(9;22)
c. t(14;21)
d. t(11;22)
e. t(4;14)
a. Osler’s nodes
b. Retinal haemorrhages
c. Splinter haemorrhages
d. Clubbing
e. Erythema nodosum
a. Subclinical hypothyroidism
b. Sick euthyroid syndrome
c. Non-compliance and overdosing prior to clinic
d. Inadequate replacement with thyroxine
e. Over-replacement with thyroxine
a. Add in bumetanide
b. Change furosemide to IV and double the daily dose
c. Add an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
d. Start a beta-blocker
e. Add in a thiazide diuretic
a. Amphetamines
b. Cocaine
c. Cannabis
d. Heroin
e. Rohypnol
a. Atopic eczema
b. Asteatotic eczema
c. Discoid eczema
d. Arthropathic eczema
e. Varicose eczema
a. Systolic murmur at the right upper sternal edge
b. Diastolic murmur at the right upper sternal edge
c. Systolic murmur at lower left sternal edge
d. Systolic murmur at the apex
e. Diastolic murmur at the apex
a. Serum sodium
b. Serum potassium
c. Serum calcium
d. Serum magnesium
e. None of the above
a. Topical steroids
b. Tar
c. Aqueous cream
d. Psoralen plus ultraviolet A (PUVA)
e. Dapsone
a. An ETT
b. A thallium cardiac scan
c. Serial ECGs
d. CT scan of chest
e. Coronary angiogram
a. Atenolol
b. Atorvastatin
c. Amlodipine
d. Amiodarone
e. Acarbose
a. Physiological
b. Liver failure
c. Kleinfelter’s syndrome
d. Hyperthyroidism
e. Drugs, including spironolactone
a. Change verapamil to diltiazem and start isosorbide mononitrate
b. Give regular nitrates
c. Change ACE inhibitor
d. Add in beta-blocker
e. Start digoxin
a. Thyroxine T3 is more abundantly produced than T4
b. Eyelid retraction can be used as a rough proxy to monitor therapy
c. Beta-blockade is always required long term for tachycardia
d. T4 is more potent than T3
e. High T4, T3 and TSH levels are seen in thyrotoxicosis
a. Aspirin, warfarin and beta-blocker
b. Aspirin, clopidogrel, clexane and GTN spray
c. Clopidogrel, GTN spray, warfarin
d. Clopidogrel, clexane and warfarin
e. Clexane, warfarin, beta-blocker and statin
a.Malathion 0.5% cream
b.Flucloxacillin 500 mg
c.Conservative management
d.Topical aqueous cream
e.Cold tar
a. Oxygen, IV digoxin
b. Oxygen, beta-blockers
c. Oxygen, heparin, warfarin
d. Oxygen, heparin, IV amiodarone
e. Oxygen, heparin and synchronized direct current (DC) shock
a. Coronary artery bypass surgery
b. Thrombolytic therapy with streptokinase
c. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)
d. Heparin infusion
e. Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor IV
a. Craniopharyngioma
b. Hypothalamic glioma
c. Pituitary adenoma
d. Parasella meningioma
e. Metastatic lymphoma
a. Macule – a small raised circumscribed area of skin <0.5 cm across
b. Vesicle – a small collection of fluid within the skin <0.5 cm across
c. Bulla – a small flat area of circumscribed skin change
d. Nodule – a small visible and/or palpable lump <0.5 cm across
e. Weal – a localized collection of pus within the epidermis
a. Previous allergic reaction
b. Acute pancreatitis
c. Suspected aortic dissection
d. Heavy vaginal bleeding
e. Hypotension
a. It is a malignant condition
b. Of breast cancers, it is the most common
c. It is not capable of metastasizing
d. It may present with an isolated breast lump
e. It does not produce nipple discharge
a. Flucloxacillin and benzylpenicillin
b. Benzylpenicillin and gentamycin
c. Gentamycin and flucloxacillin
d. Amoxicillin and metronidazole
e. Cefuroxime and flucloxacillin
a. De Musset’s sign
b. Quincke’s sign
c. Kussmaul’s sign
d. Corrigan’s sign
e. Cullen’s sign
a. Intravascular depletion due to vomiting and diarrhoea
b. Septic shock due to gastrointestinal infection
c. Haemorrhagic stroke due to hypertension
d. Vasovagal syncope due to repeated forceful vomiting
e. Medication-induced adrenocorticoid axis depression
a. Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and rest
b. Troponin and creatine kinase (CK) levels
c. Echocardiogram
d. Chest X-ray
e. Referral to A&E
a. Large tumour >4 cm
b. Multifocal cancer
c. Centrally located cancer
d. Fibroadenoma
e. Patient choice
a. Bradycardia
b. Pulsus paradoxus
c. Hypotension
d. Raised JVP
e. Diminished heart sounds
a. A bicuspid aortic valve is more likely to calcify than a tricuspid valve
b. A patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is not compatible with life
c. A machinery murmur is heard with PDA
d. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with Turner’s syndrome
e. Chronic hypothyroidism predisposes to atherosclerosis
a. CT scan of the abdomen
b. Surgical intervention
c. Treatment with phentolamine or phenoxybenzamine
d. Treatment with esmolol
e. Renal artery ultrasonography
a. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome – mitral valve prolapse
b. Turner’s syndrome – coarctation of aorta
c. Cushing’s syndrome –hypertension
d. Hypothyroidism – tachycardia
e. Noonan’s syndrome – pulmonary stenosis
a. Pulmonary embolus
b. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
c. Acute MI
d. Severe pneumonia
e. Pneumothorax
a. Malignant melanoma
b. Campbell de Morgan spots
c. Keratoacanthoma
d. Seborrhoeic keratoses
e. Basal cell carcinoma
a. Factor 10a
b. Factor 2
c. Vitamin K
d. Vitamin A
e. Factor 12
a. Breast cyst
b. Breast abscess
c. Locally invasive breast cancer
d. DCIS
e. Mastitis
a. 3-Hydroxymethylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG CoA) reductase
b. Cytochrome P450
c. Succinate coenzyme A (CoA) dehydrogenase
d. 2-Peroxide dismutase
e. 21-Hydroxylase
a. Atenolol
b. Amiodarone
c. Adenosine
d. Atorvastatin
e. Amlodipine
a. Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
b. Acanthosis nigricans
c. Lipoatrophy
d. Granuloma annulare
e. Pyoderma gangrenosum
a. Diltiazem
b. Simvastatin
c. Metformin
d. Diclofenac
e. Enalapril
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Sinus rhythm
d. Pulseless electrical activity
e. AsystoleThe following HIV-positive patients have all presented with opportunistic infections. Please choose the most correct diagnosis from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
61 A 34-year-old man presents to hospital with abdominal pain, crampy in nature and associated with loose watery stools. On examination, he is pale, tachycardic and sweaty. He denies eating any seafood recently but has been staying at a friend’s farm for the past 2 weeks.
62 A 40-year-old woman presents to hospital with a 3-day history of headache, nausea and lack of appetite. She has been otherwise fit and healthy and describes the headache as not related to any particular time of day but associated with pain on looking at bright lights.
63 A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with pain on swallowing solid food and a strange taste in her mouth. She describes the pain as retrosternal in nature and associated only with swallowing. It is worse with dry and solid food and less painful with liquids. She denies any significant weight loss.
64 A 45-year-old man is brought to hospital by his friends who are worried that he has been acting ‘out of character’ recently. Collateral history reveals a gradual change in his behaviour, becoming more confused and agitated over a 2-month period with an episode of shaking of the limbs and arms that was attributed to medication side-effects. On arrival at A&E, he is aggressive, disruptive and would not allow any of the nursing staff to take blood from him.
65 A 32-year-old man was found collapsed at home by his partner and is brought by ambulance to A&E. On arrival, he is struggling to breathe and is on an oxygen mask. History from his partner reveals a gradual onset over the past 2 weeks of increasing shortness of breath and feelings of tiredness after the simplest tasks. On examination, he is tachypnoeic with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/minute and on auscultation fine crepitations are heard in the lower and mid-zones of the lungs.Please select the most suitable option above for each of the following scenarios. each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
66 An 87-year-old female nursing home resident has started to complain of chest pain with associated shortness of breath. There are no exacerbating or relieving factors for the pain. She suffers from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), which is usually well controlled on inhaled medications.
67 A 30-year-old secretary who has recently recovered from viral chest infection presents to A&E with intermittent chest pain. The chest pain is central in origin with no radiation or any associated symptoms. On examination, the chest pain is recreated by exerting gentle pressure on the sternum.
68 A 68-year-old man has complained of retrosternal chest pain. It is at its worst when he lies flat. He complains of associated nausea but no vomiting. He has coronary artery disease and has recently had a short course of diclofenac for joint pains.
69 A 58-year-old man is brought to A&E by ambulance following an episode of chest pain at work. His colleague that accompanies him to the hospital mentions that he described his central chest pain as if it was tearing through to his back.
70 One week following a total knee replacement, a 63-year-old woman starts to complain of chest pain, right-sided in location and exacerbated by inspiration. It has no radiation or associated symptoms. She had previously complained of a swelling in her right calf that was thought to be related to her joint replacement.The following patients have all presented with genitourinary discharge. Please choose the most correct diagnosis from the above list. Each option may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
71 A 33-year-old secretary presents to her GP with an offensive discharge that she noticed 2 days ago. She initially thought it may have been related to her menstrual cycle; however, she denies any previous episodes of discharge. A vaginal swab is taken when it is noticed that the discharge smells fishy; however, the vagina appears normal on speculum examination. Slide microscopy reveals the presence of epithelial clue cells.
72 A 23-year-old man presents to the sexual health clinic with discharge from the penis and a burning sensation on passing urine. He has never had an episode like this before and when questioned he admits to casual sex with multiple partners since breaking up with his girlfriend 1 month ago. On examination, there is a yellowish discharge from the urethra and microscopy shows Gram-negative intracellular diplococci.
73 A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with an itchy rash on his penis. He denies any recent sexual intercourse and has not travelled out of the country for many years. He says that he has had the rash for some time with no ill effect. On examination, the head of the penis has multiple red lesions with cracked and raw skin. His past medical history is remarkable only for osteoarthritis and type II diabetes mellitus treated with diclofenac and metformin.
74 A 34-year-old woman presents to her GP as she and her husband have been trying for their first child for the past year and a half. She is embarrassed and upset to talk about their sexual habits and is frustrated because all her sisters have already borne children. On further questioning, she reveals that she used to work as a prostitute but has ‘given that all up now’. An endo-cervical swab is taken and the organism grown from cell culture is reported as being an obligate intracellular bacterium.
75 A 45-year-old woman presents to her local general practice nurse appointment for a routine smear test. She has not been for regular appointments with the nurse before. While performing the smear test, the nurse notices that the surface of the cervix is dotted with small haemorrhages and that there is an offensive, frothy, yellow-green discharge in the vagina with multiple erythematous areas on the vaginal walls.From the list above, please select the most suitable drug for each of the following scenarios. Each option can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
76 This is the drug of choice in sinus, atrial or nodal bradycardias. It can also be used in pulseless electrical activity with a rate <60 bpm.
77 Used in the management of torsades de pointes, ventricular tachyarrhythmias and, occasionally, in acute asthma.
78 Used in refractory ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
79 Used in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and narrow complex tachycardia.
80 Used in atrial fibrillation or supraventricular tachycardias with an accessory pathway.From the list above, please select the most appropriate investigation for the following scenarios. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
81 A 58-year-old secretary with a past history of hypertension presents with intermittent new-onset chest pain. An ECG repeated on admission shows some ST segment depression. Her troponin level is mildly positive. An ETT shows no acute changes.
82 A 74-year-old woman complains of periods of dizziness with occasional associated blackouts. She is on no regular medicines.
83 A 69-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of atrial fibrillation enquires about the risks associated with the condition. She is concerned that a cerebrovascular accident is associated with atrial fibrillation and asks about anticoagulation. Which of the above investigations would aid your decision about anticoagulation in this woman?
84 A 68-year-old man who was admitted with troponin-negative chest pain but T-wave inversion asks about his risks of progressing on to cardiac problems. Which investigation would aid in stratifying his risk?
85 A 72-year-old woman has pulmonary oedema that is medically treated but she continues to complain of intermittent dizziness and periods of her heart racing. On examination, you note that her heart rate is 60 bpm; however, the observation chart notes that her heart rate is persistently above 100 bpm. Which investigation would provide diagnostic information in this case?The following patients have all presented with endocrine disease. Please choose the most likely diagnosis from the list above. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.
86 A 54-year-old man presents to the renal clinic for regular follow-up post live related kidney transplant. He complains of a feeling of lethargy, weight gain and swelling of his ankles recently. His blood pressure reading is 176/98mmHg and fasting blood glucose level is 10.2 g/dL. Blood results show a sodium level of 148 mmol/L and a potassium level of 3.5 mmol/L.
87 A 78-year-old woman is brought to hospital by her neighbour who is concerned that she has recently become confused. Abdominal examination reveals a lumpy quality to the abdomen and areas of erythema ab igne on both shins. A keen medical student notes some unusual hair loss over her eyebrows and scalp.
88 A 52-year-old man presents to hospital with shortness of breath and cough productive of green sputum. He complains of feeling weak, thirsty and urinating frequently for the past week and weight loss over the past month. Blood results reveal the following: sodium 147 mmol/L, potassium 4.9 mmol/L, urea 11 mmol/L and plasma osmolality 330 mOsm/L. Urine osmolality is verbally reported as being ‘high’.
89 A 42-year-old man presents to his GP with headaches and some recent changes in his vision. On examination, he is a tall and heavy set man who is very tanned. Upon taking a social history he remarks that recently his wedding band has become too tight and is being resized.
90 A 38-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of recurrent anxiety attacks. He describes three or four episodes while he has been out in public when he feels light-headed, has palpitations and a mild tremor and wants to sit down until these feelings subside. Focused questioning reveals he has recently become constipated and he is very anxious that this may be cancer, as his family have a history of ‘thyroid and pituitary growths’.